Question #153:I’m 55 years old and have recently separated from my husband. Presently, I live with my daughter at the family home. For the last 8 years my daughter has contributed to paying for the house but has yet to receive any compensation for doing so. Recently, she has asked to receive 20% equity on the house as compensation and both my husband and I feel this is appropriate. My question is if my daughter ends up owning 20% of the house, I own 40% and my husband owns 40%, can my husband force me to sell the house if we were to get a divorce or does the fact that he now owns less than 50% preclude him from this? In other words, does it matter if the ownership structure of an asset is not 50%/50%? Hopefully my question isn’t too convoluted. Thanks