If the homes were acquired prior to the marriage with your separate funds and title kept in your name only, the property would be separate property and not marital property and your spouse would not have any proprietary interest in them. If there were mortgage payments made on the houses during the marriage with funds […]
If the homes were acquired prior to the marriage with your separate funds and title kept in your name only, the property would be separate property and not marital property and your spouse would not have any proprietary interest in them. If there were mortgage payments made on the houses during the marriage with funds earned by you or him during the marriage he may have a claim for half of such funds contributed to pay the mortgages.
Leonard m. Weiner, Esq/Divorce Solutions